by
rosclarke
@ 2006-10-05 - 13:52:46
One of the things I've been thinking about in the paper I've just written on Paul's hermeneutic of the OT as seen in Galatians 3:12 is the importance of interpretative traditions.
Galatians 3:12
But the law is not of faith, rather 'The one who does them shall live by them.'
Leviticus 18:5
You shall therefore keep my statutes and rules: if a person does them, he shall live by them.
Most commentaries will tell you that Galatians 3:12 is a quotation of Leviticus 18:5. It's not quite a precise quotation but that's another matter. What very few of them will tell you is that Galatians 3:12 is also an allusion to Ezekiel 20:11, 13, 21 and Nehemiah 9:29 where the Leviticus reference is taken up and applied in a quite specific way that is not immediately obvious from the Leviticus context. Both Ezekiel and Nehemiah apply the verse corporately to all Israel, and historically to Israel's failure to keep the law.
What no commentary I've come across tells you is that the Damascus Document of the Qumran community also applies Leviticus 18:5 corporately, though with their characteristic eschatological slant. Longenecker in his commentary does point out the eschatological thrust in the Targums of this verse, which interpret the 'life' mentioned as 'eternal life'.
Nor have I found anyone who comments with respect to Jesus' allusion to the same verse in Luke 10:28.
Now it seems to me that in Galatians 3, Paul is answering the question 'Who are the sons of Abraham?' cf. v7 and v29 and thus the most natural reading of v12 takes it as a reference to the covenant community of Israel and alludes to their historical failure to keep the covenant laws.
Which is precisely what we'd expect if we'd also noticed the allusion to Ezekiel and Nehemiah.
All of which is to say that Paul's hermeneutic of the OT is influenced by (though not wholly determined by) the interpretative tradition within which he stood and that if we are to intepret him correctly we need, insofar as we are able, to understand that interpretative tradition.
Nothing particularly controversial so far (I hope).
But here's the thing: if Paul (and the other apostles) were right in their interpretations of the OT, then surely that validates the hermeneutical principles by which they came to these interpretations (not unthinkingly adopting the traditions wholesale but nonetheless working with this background pattern of thinking).
So: should we seek to interpret the OT in the light of other second temple Jewish interpretative traditions even when these give different results from our grammatical-historical exegesis?
And: should we seek to interpret the whole bible in the light of the interpretative traditions that have developed over the past 2000 years?
We get to discuss my paper next week - it'll be interesting to see what other people make of it!