by
rosclarke
@ 2006-12-14 - 11:39:17
This is the verse I wrote my essay on for the hermeneutics class. The task was to examine Paul's hermeneutical goals, methods and assumptions by comparison with at least one other body of contemporary literature.
Leviticus 18:5 is a fascinating verse in terms of its interpretive history. The principle it embodies, of law-obedience leading to life, became foundational in second-temple Judaism and appears in all kinds of variant forms and different contexts. Someone has called it the 'John 3:16 of early Judaism'.
I think you can trace two different strands of the interpretive tradition associated with the verse:
(i) the salvation-historical strand
This is represented in Ezekiel 20, Neh 9:29 and the Damascus Document of the Qumran community. Here the focus is on Lev 18:5 as the identifying factor of the law. These laws which Israel disobeyed were the laws which 'if a man do them he shall live.' The context is of historical, national failure. The law did not lead to life for Israel, because Israel failed. That is the law of which Lev 18:5 speaks.
(ii) the deferred eschatological strand
This is represented in Luke 10:28, the Targums on Leviticus and Ezekiel, the Damascus Document and a variety of other texts. Essentially the focus here is on the life promised in Lev 18:5. Rather than blessed life in the land, this is eternal life. Rather than a promise for the nation, this is a promise for the individual law-keeper.
So there are a number of possibilities for Paul in Gal 3. He could be alluding to one of these strands, or both, or neither.
If neither:
This is the classic reformation view of Luther et al. Usually the interpretation of Gal 3:12 is something like 'the one who does them shall live by them' but no one does them, so no one will live by them (except Christ, of course). The problem with this view is that I just don't see how Paul could have expected any of his original hearers to have understood that this is what he meant. They thought people could keep the law (and so did Paul - Phil 3:6, Rom 2:13). And they would never have heard Lev 18:5 used in this way.
Which is not to say Paul couldn't have used it to mean that, just that he would surely have needed to explain it a lot more clearly. And the same argument applies to any non-traditional reading of the verse (even a strict GHE reading) - Paul's hearers would not have known what he meant.
If both:
Could be both - the traditions are neither isolated (both appear at Qumran) nor mutually exclusive (historical failure does not necessarily entail future disqualification). We'll need to look at the context of Galatians to see whether one or both fits best.
It seems clear to me that the salvation-historical reading of Lev 18:5 fits Paul's aims and argument in Gal 3 most closely, without any need to refer to the deferred eschatology strand at all. Here are some reasons why:
(i) Paul's overall argument is to do with the definition of the covenant community by faith rather than by law (3:7, 9, 29), not with individual salvation. Remember the presenting problem is whether Gentiles need to become like Jews to be included.
(ii) This is a salvation historical argument contrasting the people of God who lived under law and were cursed with those who live by faith and are blessed. This historical aspect is brought out strongly in the discussion in vv.15-28.
(iii) Since faith brings blessing, the law can't be 'of faith' (3:12), rather 'The one who does them shall live by them' and we know what happened to those who lived by them - they failed and were cursed.
(iv) 'Life' in Galatians is almost exclusively life here and now (2:14, 2:20, 5:25) and most of the letter is concerned with issues of the Christian life. Only in 6:8 does Paul make any mention of eternal life.
Corporate, historical, failure rather than individual, future, eternal life seems to be the matter at hand. And the interpretive tradition was surely strong enough that Paul could presume his readers' familiarity with it.
So it's a bit like the use of 'brave new world' with reference to Huxley not Shakespeare. Paul refers, I think, primarily to Ezekiel and Nehemiah and the associated tradition, rather than to Leviticus per se.